Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a foundational service of AWS, offering scalable compute capacity for various applications. This set of AWS EC2 MCQ questions and answers is focused on expert-level topics, including hosting web applications, big data, hybrid architectures, advanced networking, and troubleshooting. Enhance your knowledge for professional-level expertise.
1. Which EC2 instance type is ideal for hosting a web application with unpredictable traffic?
a) Spot Instance
b) Reserved Instance
c) On-Demand Instance
d) Dedicated Host
2. What AWS service can be used with EC2 to distribute incoming traffic across multiple instances?
a) AWS Lambda
b) Amazon RDS
c) Elastic Load Balancing
d) AWS Batch
3. Which of the following is necessary to make a web application publicly accessible on an EC2 instance?
a) Enable root access
b) Assign a public IP or Elastic IP
c) Disable security groups
d) Use private subnets
4. What is the default port number to allow HTTP traffic on an EC2 instance?
a) 443
b) 22
c) 80
d) 3306
5. Which storage type is recommended for hosting a high-performance database on EC2?
a) Magnetic Storage
b) General Purpose SSD
c) Provisioned IOPS SSD
d) Instance Store
6. Which EC2 instance family is optimized for machine learning and AI workloads?
a) T-series
b) M-series
c) P-series
d) A-series
7. What service can be used to manage and scale Hadoop clusters on EC2?
a) Amazon EMR
b) AWS Glue
c) AWS Batch
d) Amazon Kinesis
8. Which storage option is best suited for big data processing on EC2?
a) Instance Store
b) Amazon S3
c) Elastic File System (EFS)
d) Amazon Glacier
9. What is a key benefit of using EC2 Spot Instances for machine learning workloads?
a) Guaranteed performance
b) Low cost for interruptible workloads
c) Unlimited usage hours
d) No need for IAM roles
10. How can EC2 be integrated with SageMaker for machine learning?
a) As a compute backend for training and inference
b) By storing model data on local volumes
c) By enabling real-time monitoring
d) By replacing SageMaker with EC2 entirely
11. Which AWS service helps connect on-premises data centers with EC2?
a) AWS Direct Connect
b) AWS Glue
c) AWS AppSync
d) Amazon WorkSpaces
12. What is the purpose of using AWS Outposts in a hybrid architecture?
a) To enable on-premises cloud computing with AWS services
b) To migrate databases to the cloud
c) To provide low-latency edge computing
d) To deploy IoT applications
13. How can you ensure secure communication between on-premises systems and EC2?
a) By disabling encryption
b) Using a Virtual Private Gateway and VPN
c) By using public subnets only
d) Disabling access control lists
14. What is the key advantage of hybrid architectures with EC2?
a) Low maintenance costs
b) Access to scalable cloud resources while keeping sensitive data on-premises
c) Simplified backup management
d) Real-time processing without data encryption
15. Which AWS service supports real-time data replication between on-premises systems and EC2?
a) AWS Glue
b) AWS DataSync
c) Amazon Kinesis
d) Amazon Redshift
16. What does AWS Direct Connect provide?
a) A VPN over the public internet
b) A dedicated network connection between your premises and AWS
c) High-performance DNS management
d) Serverless networking options
17. Which Direct Connect feature ensures consistent bandwidth for EC2 traffic?
a) Traffic mirroring
b) Private virtual interfaces
c) Burstable throughput
d) Edge locations
18. What is the purpose of using Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) with EC2?
a) To enable serverless compute functions
b) To create isolated networks for your instances
c) To improve instance startup time
d) To provide free storage options
19. Which AWS service enhances networking performance between multiple VPCs?
a) AWS Transit Gateway
b) AWS App Runner
c) Elastic Load Balancer
d) Amazon Route 53
20. How can advanced DNS routing be implemented for EC2 instances?
a) Using AWS CloudTrail
b) Configuring Amazon Route 53 with health checks
c) Enabling default security groups
d) Configuring IAM policies
21. What is the primary tool for monitoring EC2 performance metrics?
a) AWS CloudTrail
b) Amazon CloudWatch
c) AWS Inspector
d) AWS Systems Manager
22. How can you recover an EC2 instance that has become unresponsive?
a) Rebooting the instance from the console
b) Assigning it to a different subnet
c) Disabling all IAM roles
d) Deleting associated volumes
23. What does a “stopped” EC2 instance state indicate?
a) The instance is terminated
b) The instance is paused but retains its data
c) The instance has failed and lost all its data
d) The instance is in a reboot loop
24. Which tool helps analyze network connectivity issues in EC2 instances?
a) VPC Flow Logs
b) Amazon QuickSight
c) AWS Glue
d) AWS Step Functions
25. What is a common cause of “Instance Limit Exceeded” errors in EC2?
a) Exceeding security group limits
b) Hitting regional instance quotas
c) Using incompatible instance types
d) Invalid key pair associations
26. How can you verify that an EC2 instance can reach an external endpoint?
a) Check Route Tables
b) Use the ping command or curl command
c) Restart the EC2 instance
d) Attach a new Elastic IP
27. What is the purpose of AWS Systems Manager Session Manager in troubleshooting?
a) To execute CLI commands on EC2 without SSH access
b) To automate storage scaling
c) To monitor IAM roles
d) To reboot instances automatically
28. How can you troubleshoot an instance launch failure?
a) Review instance launch logs in the console
b) Delete the instance and try again
c) Disable encryption
d) Attach multiple key pairs
29. What is the role of CloudWatch Logs in debugging EC2 instances?
a) It provides detailed system performance logs and error insights
b) It monitors user activities in IAM
c) It updates EC2 instance metadata
d) It encrypts sensitive API requests
30. How can you ensure high availability for critical applications on EC2?
a) Use Elastic Load Balancers and multiple availability zones
b) Launch all instances in the same region
c) Disable auto-scaling groups
d) Use Spot Instances exclusively
QNo | Answer (Option with the text) |
---|---|
1 | c) On-Demand Instance |
2 | c) Elastic Load Balancing |
3 | b) Assign a public IP or Elastic IP |
4 | c) 80 |
5 | c) Provisioned IOPS SSD |
6 | c) P-series |
7 | a) Amazon EMR |
8 | b) Amazon S3 |
9 | b) Low cost for interruptible workloads |
10 | a) As a compute backend for training and inference |
11 | a) AWS Direct Connect |
12 | a) To enable on-premises cloud computing with AWS services |
13 | b) Using a Virtual Private Gateway and VPN |
14 | b) Access to scalable cloud resources while keeping sensitive data on-premises |
15 | b) AWS DataSync |
16 | b) A dedicated network connection between your premises and AWS |
17 | b) Private virtual interfaces |
18 | b) To create isolated networks for your instances |
19 | a) AWS Transit Gateway |
20 | b) Configuring Amazon Route 53 with health checks |
21 | b) Amazon CloudWatch |
22 | a) Rebooting the instance from the console |
23 | b) The instance is paused but retains its data |
24 | a) VPC Flow Logs |
25 | b) Hitting regional instance quotas |
26 | b) Use the ping command or curl command |
Here are the answers for the last four questions:
QNo | Answer (Option with the text) |
---|---|
27 | a) To execute CLI commands on EC2 without SSH access |
28 | a) Review instance launch logs in the console |
29 | a) It provides detailed system performance logs and error insights |
30 | a) Use Elastic Load Balancers and multiple availability zones |